darlodge

If you divert from Mobile 1 to Mobile 2 you pay for the call charge from mobile 1 -> 2. So if someone rings Mobile 1 they pay for the call as far as mobile 1, you then have to pay to 'forward' the call to mobile 2.

It means that any call mobile 1 receives you are charged all forwarding call costs on mobile 1's bill

I think I explained it in the end.

Darren

[Edited by darlodge - 12/2/2003 1:08:33 PM]

P1Fanatic

If I divert my work phone (vodafone) to my personal phone (singlepoint O2) then Im assuming if any charges are applied then it will be to the diverting phone?

Any do this and know for sure?

Thanks,
Simon.

Ciaran

iTrader: (16)

best bet is phone the company your with and turn it to a pay as u go sim for nowt then put divert on!