Boro

iTrader: (1)

Tried googling this for 30mins and cant find anything!

If something is reduced in price, how long does it have had to be for sale for, at the original higher price?

Ie, Was £1000, Now £500.

From what i remember, it would have had to be advertised at £1000 for X number of days. Is that right and how long is it?

sti-04!!

From what i know the retailer can change his mind whenever he wants. 'The items at that price are now sold out sir, but we have another batch at this price' springs to mind.

cookstar

iTrader: (6)

iirc, it can also be an advertised price in another store, or an on-line price, so stores can get around it like this.

ethanrob

iTrader: (3)

correct me if im wrong(worked in retail years back)

but im pretty sure that the company has had to have sold the product at the stated "before sale price" in at least one of its branch's for 8 weeks prior to the sale price being displayed

IIRC something like that

marcus

Boro

iTrader: (1)

Thats the kind of thing i thought. So a company couldnt put the price up to £2000 for 10mins, then put another sign up saying "Was £2000, Now £500". Makes sense, but is that a written law?

urban

iTrader: (1)

You're probably going to get all sort of answers here.

An electricial applicances store we supplied software to told me it was 28 days at the higher price.

But there were all sorts of cons they could use to basically put up "sales" whenever they wanted to.

Boro

iTrader: (1)

Found it >>> www.berr.gov.uk/files/file8127.pdf

Para 1.22 and 1.23 says it all.

Basically, it should be on sale at the higher price for 28 days but if it HASNT been, you have to say how long it was on sale at the higher price for.

So, in theory, you could put something up to £2000 for 24hrs, but you would have to indicate this when you reduce the price.