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Old 02 May 2007, 07:58 AM
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David Lock
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Question So what do you think?

I have an oldish sit-on grass mower. Last October it broke down and chap came, took it away and fitted new bearing around one of the blade shafts which had seized. I used it a few time before covering it for the winter. Have been using it again only for the bearing to collapse and break something else at the same time. Mower chap says that these bearings are only guaranteed for 30 days. I say - bollox to that, they are designed to last for years so I think they are breaking the law under the Sale of Goods Act, you know "Fit for Purpose" etc or whatever the fancy words are. But what about consequential damage - do you think I should stump up costs for additional repairs caused by bearing breaking? dl
Old 02 May 2007, 12:16 PM
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Leslie
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If it is the new bearing which collapsed I certainly think that the firm is liable because that must contradict the sale of goods act.

Les




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