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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 04:00 PM
  #1  
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Default front/back drive ratio

ive just bought a mint 2000 x plate turbo can anyone tell me the front/ back ratio for drive. i aa thinking 60% back 40% front is this correct.
thanks
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 04:20 PM
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45f/55r i think

Tony
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 04:47 PM
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50/50 assuming it a UK spec.
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:05 PM
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I always thought the UK spec was 60(f) 40(r), hence it tended to be a car that always wanted to understeer..
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:27 PM
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http://bbs.scoobynet.co.uk/showthrea...t=torque+split
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:30 PM
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http://bbs.22b.com/cgi-bin/ultimateb...=000196#000000
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:32 PM
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http://bbs.22b.com/cgi-bin/ultimateb...=001553#000000
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:32 PM
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http://bbs.22b.com/cgi-bin/ultimateb...=000129#000000
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:33 PM
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http://bbs.22b.com/cgi-bin/ultimateb...=000070#000003
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 06:53 PM
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Too much to read John..
This thread is in relation to a UK X plate car, not a DCCD equipped or NewAge WRX or whatever. (NewAge WRX is 50:50)

When i get the chance to sober up i'll try and find out why i think the UK is a 60/40 F/R split, but this goes back to when i first bought mine back in '99 when i had problems in counteracting the understeering trait of the car.

I was aware at that time that the Jap spec Sti's with 4.444 diffs (and obviously 1:1 drop gears) were a 50/50 whereas the Uk had 1.1:1 drop gears and so split would be different.

Happy New Year btw and all the best when it comes.

cheers
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 07:04 PM
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Alan, I can remember some talk of the MY99 on non JDM cars with the phase 2 engines having 60/40 f/r split too, prior to that it was 50/50 on everything but the DCCD equiped. Problem is I've never seen anything in the available mechanical specs to support this, it was only in magazines...and, well, we know how accurate they are!

Electronic traction control, LSD for the first time... mutter... mutter...

Last edited by Tim W; Dec 31, 2005 at 07:11 PM.
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Old Dec 31, 2005 | 07:04 PM
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My basic understanding of it is that in non-slip conditions the drop gear makes no difference to the torque split. I wasn't aware that the newage WRX had a different drop gear or diff setup, if indeed it does. AFAIK the gearboxes are swappable and make no difference to understeer. A 6MT with the same drop gears and diff ratios does because of the Suretrac or similar front diff rather than the open front diff the GC8 UK cars came with.

I thought they were all 50:50 except the DCCD cars.
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Old Jan 1, 2006 | 01:43 AM
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My basic understanding of it is that in non-slip conditions the drop gear makes no difference to the torque split.
I'd agree with that.


Taken from one of the threads you posted above John..

"The only diference worth mentioning between a Japanese spec STi and a UK spec STi is the drop gear ratio and the rear diff ratio. You get the same final drive ratio out of both setups, but the leverage at the crown wheel is diferent on a UK spec front and rear, and that is what is altering the torque split. They arnt using the centre diff to give a torque split change in this case, they are using the leverage at the diffs."

"I can think of no other reason to make diferent specs of drop gears and diffs other than to alter the handling."

"I spoke to someone at Prodrive recently about this and they asured me this is how the drop gear/diferent diff setup works. The reason it is used in the Euro spec car was to provide a more FWD biased power delivery."

Last edited by AlanG; Jan 1, 2006 at 02:19 AM.
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Old Jan 1, 2006 | 01:53 AM
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It's been an age old debate it seems, here's another couple..

Adam wrote this in a thread:Very oddly, been speaking to barratts and have been told again that prodrives testing was the reason they went for the 1.1:1 step down as it changed the torque distribution in the cars to 60 front 40 rear.


The Damian Harty Q&A

Last edited by AlanG; Jan 1, 2006 at 02:17 AM.
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Old Jan 1, 2006 | 09:27 AM
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Thanks Alan, it does seem an age old debate that still continues as none of the threads on it seemed to reach a clear conclusion. On the 22B thread bottom of page 3 quotes Mike Wood as saying 55:45, but on page 4 it is still debated.

I'm puzzled with only 1.1:1 drop gearing it could get to 60:40, but I don't fully understand torque splits. And I think we all agree it is not rear biased.
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Old Jan 1, 2006 | 11:23 AM
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Hi John
Yeah that's what i noticed as well. After reading quite abit on various threads i came to the conclusion that i don't fully understand it either but oone thing came clear...

Does it really matter what the split is?.......... erm.... nah, not really.
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